From time to time, we heard feminists and gay activists claiming that they are seeking equality, and that it is essential for a better society. However, I have came up with a question: How to measure equality?
A common method used by feminists is statistics. If statistics shows that women are underrepresented in some areas, they would say that women are being oppressed. For instance, statistics show that women are still currently underrepresented in science, engineering and mathematics. Then feminists would shout that men are oppressing women by not allowing them to enter those careers.
The problem with this is that it may be showing other difference (probably biological), rather than social structural factors. Taking the above examples, feminists would then take measure to ensure that same number of men and women are represented in those career. Now that's the question. If men ARE indeed innately better at these things, such measures would be problematic to them because this will means that men are structurally handicapped in order for women to enter those career. What is so fair about this?
This method is based on the following premise:
If there are statistical difference, it MUST be due to social factors.
Can anyone tell me the logics behind this absurd statement?
Lack of objective measurement is very dangerous, because it allows powerful groups (especially feminists as this is most commonly used by them) to interpret the data in infinitely possible ways. For example, with the case cited above, it can be explained by a hell lot of data: innate difference, stereotype, hormonal issues and so on. But, we can NEVER know if it is truly due to some kind of "oppression" or "social factors".
Conclusion
Equality MAY BE a worthwhile cause, but I sincerely wish that any groups (no matter feminists or gay activists) who claim that they are seeking it should firstly tell everyone a good way to measure equality. Otherwise, it will become an endless and meaningless debate about "which factors are more important".
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